MP State Eligibility Test 2017 Papers - Law


(Law) CTET = MP State Eligibility Test - 2017 - Final Model Answer Key


Q.No: 1 According to preamble of the constitution of India, which of the following statements are correct? select correct answer.

1. India is a sovereign, Democratic, Republic.
2. India is a socialist, Democratic, Republic.
3. India is a secular, Democratic, Republic.
4. India is a Democratic, Republic.

Code :

A 1 and 3
B A and 4
C 1, 2 and 3
D 2, 3 and 4
ANS (C)

Q.No: 2 Article 21 - A of the constitution of India guarantees. Give correct Answer

A Right to life and personal liberty
B Right to free and compulsory education
C Right to property
D Right to Work
ANS (B)

Q.No: 3 Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R), Give correct answer using the codes given below:Assertion(A): Fundamental Rights are enforceable rights.
Reason(R): Because they are absolute rights.

A Both (A) and (R) are right a (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B Both (A) and (R) are wrong
C (A) is wrong and (R) is right
D (A) is right (R) is wrong
ANS (D)

Q.No: 4 Fundamental duties were inserted into the Constitution of India by which of the following amendment?

A Forty Fourth Amendment 44
B Forty Second Amendment 42
C First Amendment 1
D Eighty sixth Amendment 86
ANS (B)

Q.No: 5 Using codes below select correct answer

A Only Parliament can make law on subjects mentioned in concurrent list
B Only state legislature can make law on subjects mentioned in concurrent list
C Both Parliament and state legislature can make law on the subject mentioned in concurrent list.
D President can make law on subjects mentioned in concurrent list
ANS (C)

Q.No: 6 In which of the following judegment , the Supreme Court declared National Judicial Appointment Commission(NJAC)as unconstitutional

A Subramaniam Swamy vs. Union of India
B M. C. Mehta vs. Union Of India
C Minerva Mills vs. Union of India
D Supreme Court Advocates on Record Association vs Union of India
ANS (D)

Q.No: 7 Which of the following statements are correct. Select correct code.

1. Writ of Habeas Corpus is issued against illegal confinement of a person
2. Writ of Mandamus is issued to correct Jurisdictional error
3. Writ jurisdiction can be exercised for enforcement of Fundamental rights
4. Principle of resjudicata is applicable to writ jurisdiction.

Code:

A 1 and 2 are correct
B 1, 3 and 4 are correct
C 2 and 3 are not correct
D 2 and 4 are correct
ANS (B)

Q.No: 8 Which of the following fundamental rights conferred under the Articles given below can not be suspended while proclamation of emergency is in operation?

A Article 20 and 21
B Article 19
C Article 18
D Article 22
ANS (A)

Q.No: 10 Which of the following Article of the Constitution of India provides that "the law declared by Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India"?

A Article 142
B Article 144
C Article 141
D Article 143
ANS (C)

Q.No: 11 "Jurisprudence was First of the social sciences to be born." Who said it?

A Holland
B Savigny
C Wuzrel
D Julius stone
ANS (C)

Q.No: 12 Pure theory of law propounded by "

A Jeromy Bentham
B Hans Kelson
C John Austin
D Savigny
ANS (B)

Q.No: 13 From which school of thoughts the 'Volkgeist Theory' emerged? ' ' ।

A Natural Law School
B Analytical School
C Sociological School
D Historical School
ANS (D)

Q.No: 14 Which of the following statements are correct. Give correct answer using codes given below

1. Rights and duties are co-relative
2. Jeromy Bentham is the father of Imperative theory of law
3. Stare decisis is hallmark of common law system.
4. John Austin is the Father of Imperative theory of law

Code:

A 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B 2 and 3 are correct
C 2 is correct but 3 is incorrect
D 4 and 2 are correct
ANS (A)

Q.No: 15 Corpus and animus are required for: '

A Possession Claim
B Ownership Claim
C Right Claim
D For rights and duties
ANS (A)

Q.No: 16 Which of the following theories of punishment would be effective

A Retributive
B Deterrent
C Reformatory
D Blend of Deterrent and Reformatory
ANS (D)

Q.No: 17 Who is titled as Father of International Law? ।

A Oppenhiem
B Bentham
C Grotius
D Holland
ANS (C)

Q.No: 18 Who said, "International Law is vanishing point of jurisprudence."

A Holland
B Kelsen
C Austin
D Starke
ANS (A
ANS (C)

Q.No: 19 In which of the cases Supreme Court ruled that "imprisonment of a honest and bonafide judgment debtor in execution of money decree under section 51  of the Civil Procedure code violative of Article 11 of the International Covenant of Civil and Political Rights."

A Nanka vs. state of Rajasthan
B Jolly George verghese vs. Bank of Cochin
C Maganbhai Iswar Bhai Patel vs. Union of India
D Ram Jawaya Kapoor vs. State of Punjab
ANS (B)

Q.No: 20 Read the following statements and using codes below, select correct answer

1. Custom and Treaties are primary sources of International Law.
2. International law is powerful law
3. State comes into existance only when recognition is granted
4. Every state has duty to grant recognition to new state

Codes-

A 1 and 2 are incorrect
B 1, 2 and 3 are correct
C 1 and 3 are correct
D Only 1 is correct
ANS (D)

Q.No: 22 Which of the following is not the principal organ of the United Nations :

A Trusteeship Council
B Economic and Social Council
C International Court of Justice
D UNESCO
ANS (D)

Q.No: 23 International Human Rights Day is celebrated every year on ?

A 24th October 24
B 10th December 10
C 5 th June 5
D 1st May 1
ANS (B)

Q.No: 24 What is the eligibility for the post of Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission Of India? ?

A He should be a Former Chief Justice of India
B He should be a Former Judge of Supreme Court
C He should be a Former Chief Justice of High Court
D An Eminent Jurist
ANS (A)

Q.No: 25 Read the statements below and using codes: give correct answer

1. The 'Uniting for Peace' Resolution was passed by General Assembly in 1950
2. This Resolution has narrowed the role of General Assembly

Code:

A 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct
B 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect
C 1 and 2 both are correct
D 1 and 2 both are incorrect
ANS (B)

Q.No: 26 The Bigamy has been prohibited under which of the following section of the Hindu Marriage Act.1955

A Section 11
B Section 17
C Section 5
D Section 12
ANS (C)

Q.No: 27 Section 14 of the Hindu Succession Act has provided a Hindu female, which of the following right?

A Right to Stridhan
B Limited ownership to property
C Absolute ownership to property she has acquired
D Partial right in property of husband
ANS (C)

Q.No: 29 The 'Mahr' is a sum money / property received by a Muslim wife as '

A Consideration of marriage
B Consideration of talak
C Consideration as dowry
D Consideration as Kharch-i-Pandan -
ANS (A)

Q.No: 30 Which one of the following catagory of talak fall under talak by mutual consent ।

A Talak-ul-sunnat
B Khula
C Ila
D Talak-ul-biddat
ANS (B)

Q.No: 31 Read the statement below and using codes , select correct answer

1. An agreement made without consideration its void
2.The consideration must be adequate

Codes :

A 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect
B 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct
C 1 and 2 both are correct
D 1 and 2 both are incorrect
ANS (A)

Q.No: 32 Case of Carlill vs. Carbolic Smoke Ball Company is related to

A Specific offer
B Counter offer
C General offer
D Invitation to offer
ANS (C)

Q.No: 34 The Clayton's Rule is related to: '

A Performance of contract
B Appropriation of Payment
C Quasi contract
D Frustration of contract
ANS (B)

Q.No: 35 Responsibility of finder of goods is covered under: ' '

A Quasi-contract
B Partnership
C Agency
D Pledge
ANS (A)

Q.No: 36 What is contract according to section 2(h) for the Indian contract Act? 2

A Promise to do something
B Acceptance of an offer
C An agreement enforceable by law
D Agreement between two parties
ANS (C)

Q.No: 37 Read the statements below and select the correct statement using codes below

1. Tort is a civil wrong for which action for damages lie
2. Some tortious acts are also punishable under criminal law

Codes-

A 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect
B 1 and 2 both are incorrect
C 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct
D 1 and 2 both are correct
ANS (D)

Q.No: 39 Principle of strict liability has its origin from which of  the following case: ' '

A Derry vs. Peek
B Ashbey vs. White
C M.C.Mehta vs. Union of India
D Rylands vs. Fletcher
ANS (D)

Q.No: 40 Case of Haynes vs. Harwood is related to which tort

A Trespass
B Defamation
C Contributory negligence
D Public nuisance
ANS (C)

Q.No: 41 The test of 'Fore see ability' was propounded in which of the following case ' ' ।

A Wagon Mound case
B Scott vs. Shepherd
C Joyce vs. Yeomans
D Ashbey vs. White
ANS (A)

Q.No: 42 Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under of _____ age

A 8 years
B 10 years
C 7 years
D 12 years
ANS (C)

Q.No: 43 'Doctrine of mensrea' is not attracted in which of the following category of offences

A Relating to bodily injury
B Relating to offence against state
C Relating to Fraud
D Strict liability
ANS (D)

Q.No: 44 The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 has added a new section 376-D. It relates to which of the following offence

A Gang Rape
B Custodial Rape
C Rape by Public Servant
D Rape by Husband
ANS (A)

Q.No: 46 A man who follows a woman and contacts or attempt to contact such woman to Foster personal interaction repeatedly despite clear indication of disinterest by such woman, commits the offence of:

A Yoyeurism
B Sexual harassment
C Stalking
D Assault
ANS (C)

Q.No: 47 Read the statements below and using codes below give correct answer

1. Agreement between 2 persons to do an illegal act is criminal conspiracy
2. Agreement between 2 persons to do legal act by illegal means is also criminal conspiracy

Codes:

A 1 is correct but 2 is not correct
B 2 is correct but 1 is not correct
C 1 and 2 both are correct
D 1 and 2 both are not correct
ANS (C)

Q.No: 48 A wider definition of 'Industry' was given by 7 Judges Bench of Supreme Court in:

A State of Bombay vs. Hospital Mazdoor Sabha
B Bangalore water Supply and Sewerage Board vs. A. Rajappa
C Corporation of City Nagpur vs. Employees
D University of Delhi vs. Ram Nath
ANS (B)

Q.No: 49 Under Section 16 of the Trade Unions Act, 1926, the trade Union can create which of the following funds

A Create General Fund
B Create Fund for Political purposes
C Create fund for fighting litigation
D Create separate Fund for compensation
ANS (B)

Q.No: 50 Read the following statements and using codes below select correct answer

1. Strike is prohibited under Section 22 of the Industrial Disputes Act.
2. In Crompton Greaves vs. Workman, it was held that  worker is entitle to wages for strike period even if the strike is illegal

Codes:

A 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect
B 2 is correct but 1 is incorrect
C 1 and 2 both are incorrect
D 1 and 2 both are correct
ANS (A)

Part-B

Q.No: 1 Read Assertion (A) and Reason(R) and give correct answer using codes given below: Assertion(A): Parliament and state legislature can make law on any entry in the concurrent list.
Reason(R): But in case of inconsistancy between law made by parliament and law made by state legislature, the later will prevail.

Codes:

A Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
B Both (A) and (R) are correct
C (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
D (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
ANS (C)

Q.No: 2 Which of the following is not part of Fundamental Duty

A Promote harmony and spirit of common brotherhood
B Safeguard Public property
C Protect environment
D Not to criticise governmental decision
ANS (D)

Q.No: 3 Read Assertion (A) and Reason(R) and give correct answer using codes given below: Assertion(A): The Directive principle of state policy are not justiciable in the court of law.
Reason(R): Because they are not fundamental right in the governance of the country.

Codes:

A Both (A) and (R) are correct
B (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
C (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
D Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
ANS (B)

Q.No: 4 The judgement of Supreme court in Keshvananda Bharti vs. State of Kerala is known for laying down the doctrine of

A Polluters pay
B Equal pay for equal work
C Basic structure of Indian constitution
D Prospective overruling
ANS (C)

Q.No: 5 Which of the following statements correctly represent the nature and scope of Amending power of Parliament. Select correct one by using codes below:

1. Parliament has absolute power of amending constitution
2. Parliament can amend the constitution but subject to Basic structure limitation
3. Amending power of Parliament is very rigid
4. Article 368 provides power as well as procedure for amendment

A 1 and 3 are correct
B 1 is correct but 4 is not correct
C 2 and 4 are correct
D 3 and 4 are correct
ANS (C)

Q.No: 6 In which of the following matters the jurisdiction of Supreme Court is barred:

A Dispute between two states
B Dispute between Union of India and any state
C Issuance of writs
D Inter-states water disputes
ANS (D)

Q.No: 8 Select the correct statement.

A Judiciary is not state within meaning of Article 12
B Judiciary is State within meaning of Article 12
C Only while performing non-judicial functions ,  such as administrative the court will fall under definition of "the State"
D Writs can be issued against high court by the Supreme Court.
ANS (C)

Q.No: 9 The advisory jurisdiction of Supreme Court has been provided under _____ article of the constitution of India.

A Article 141
B Article 143
C Article 32
D Article 131
ANS (B)

Q.No: 10 The collegiums system of appointment of high Court and Supreme Court judges was introduced by Supreme Court in which of the following judgment

A Subbash Sharma vs. Union of India
B S.P Gupta vs. Union of India
C Supreme Court Advocates on Record Association vs. Union of India
D Sub-Committee on Judicial Accountability vs. Union of India
ANS (C)

Q.No: 11 Transfer of High Court Judge is ordered by: Select correct answers from codes below

A By chief Justice of India
B By President of India
C By president of India after consultation with chief justice of India
D By chief Justice of India after consultation with the Chief Justice of High Court
ANS (C)

Q.No: 12 The maximum number of days for which council of state can keep money bill transmitted by House of People pending with it, is

A 30 days 30
B 14 days 14
C 15 days 15
D 7 days 7
ANS (B)

Q.No: 13 The chief Election Commissioner of India can be removed by which of the following: Give the correct answer-

A By Central Government
B By President of India
C By Prime Minister of India
D In the manner and on ground as judge of Supreme Court can be removed.
ANS (D)

Q.No: 15 'Law is command of Sovereign'. Which of the following jurist said it. ' '

A Austin
B Salmond
C Holland
D Bentham
ANS (A)

Q.No: 16 According to Hobbes, the ultimate objective of law and sovereign power is to:

A Command Subjects
B Establish peace
C decide between just and unjust law
D impart justice only
ANS (B)

Q.No: 17 Famous 'Hart - Fuller controversy' is '

A Law and Morality
B Theories of Punishment
C Sources of Law
D Social Engineering
ANS (A)

Q.No: 18 The famous treatise 'An introduction to the principles of Morals and Legislation' has been written by 'An introduction to the principles of Morals and Legislation' ।

A L.Dugwit
B H.J.Laski . .
C J.Bentham .
D Rescoe Pound
ANS (C)

Q.No: 19 Read Assertion (A) and Reason(R) and give correct answer using codes given below. Assertion (A): Administrative law is branch of Public law
Reason (R): Because Administrative law deals with organization and Power of administrative and quasi judicial agencies.

Codes:

A (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
B Both (A) and (R) are correct
C (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
D Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
ANS (B)

Q.No: 20 Doctrine "Nemo in propria causa judex esse debet' means:

A Hear the other party
B Administrative has discretionary power
C No one should be judge in his on case
D The judgment should be reasoned
ANS (C)

Q.No: 22 Which of the following statements are correct. Select from codes below

a. Administrative action is discretionary in nature
b. The discretionary power is based on subjective satisfaction
c. Administrative authority must act fairly and reasonably
d No judicial review is permissible of administrative decision

Code:

A 1 and 2 are correct
B 2 is incorrect but 3 is correct
C 1,2,3 are correct
D 1 and 4 are correct
ANS (C)

Q.No: 23 The writ of "Quo-warranto' is issued in which of the following cases.

A To direct release of a person detained illegally
B Against a person who occupies or usurps an independent public office
C To direct statutory agency to perform its public duty
D To correct the jurisdictional error of quasi - judicial bodies
ANS (B)

Q.No: 24 The concept of Ombudsman has originated from which of the following nation

A China
B Brazil
C Sweedon
D U.S.A
ANS (C)

Q.No: 25 Read the following statements and select the correct answer

A In India we have no law on Lokpal
B The Lokpal and Lokayukt Act,2013 has been enacted and made effective
C The Lokpal and Lokayukt Act, 2013 has been enacted but not yet made effective
D The Lokpal has been appointed
ANS (C)

Q.No: 26 The Indian Penal code is not applicable to

A A foreigner committing offence in India
B An Indian citizen committing offence beyond India
C Offence committed by a foreigner on Indian Aircraft
D State of Jammu and Kashmir
ANS (D)

Q.No: 27 'A instigate 'B' to instigate 'C' to murder 'Z'. Accordingly, 'B' instigate 'C' and 'C' committed murder of 'Z'. Who will be liable for punishment.

A Only 'B'
B Only 'C'
C 'A', 'B' and 'C'
D Only 'C' and 'B'
ANS (C)

Q.No: 28 How many minimum number of persons are necessary to constitute the offence of robbery

A 3 3
B 4 4
C 5 5
D 2 2
ANS (D)

Q.No: 30 Constitutional validity of Section 377 of Indian Penal Code has been upheld by Supreme Court in which of the following cases:

A Subramaniam Swamy vs. Union of India
B Shreya Singal vs. Union of India
C Naz Foundation vs. Govt.of NCT Delhi
D Suresh Kumar Kaushal vs. Naz Foundation
ANS (D)

Q.No: 31 'A' finds a ring lying on the high way not in possession of any person. 'A' has taken it, whether 'A' has committed any offence. Select correct answer

A No 'A' has not committed theft
B Yes 'A' has committed theft
C Yes 'A' has committed offence of an attempt to commit theft
D 'A' has committed offence of extortion.
ANS (A)

Q.No: 32 A man is said to commit rape if he has sexual intercourse with a women with or without consent. If her age is below ___ of age

A 19 years
B 20 years
C 21 years
D 18 years
ANS (D)

Q.No: 33 The definition of Environment under Section 2(a) of the environment protection ACT, 1986 include,

A Water , Air and Land only
B Water , Air and Forests only
C  Water, Air and Land, and inter relationship among water, air, land, human being, plants and other living creatures
D Water, air and human beings
ANS (C)

Q.No: 34 In which of the following cases the Polluter pay principle was first time involved by Supreme Court

A M.C.Mehta vs. Union of India
B Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action vs. Union of India
C Kamal Nath's case
D Vellora Citizens's case
ANS (B)

Q.No: 36 The remedy of Public Interest Litigation for protection of Environment was first involved in which of the  following cases:

A M.C.Mehta vs. Union of India
B Ratlam Muncipality vs. Vardichand
C Shriram Gas Leak Case
D Taj Trapezium Case
ANS (B)

Q.No: 37 Read the statements below and select the correct statement by using codes below.

1. The supreme Court has adopted the concept of continuing mandamus to monitor and implement cases relating to environment
2. The Supreme Court has discouraged the role of amicus curiae in environmental litigation

A 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct
B 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect
C 1 and 2 both are correct
D 1 and 2 both are incorrect
ANS (B)

Q.No: 38 In 2006 a major law relating to forest was enacted . The name of Act is:

A Forest Act
B Conservation of Forest Act
C Wild Life (Protection) Act
D The Scheduled tribes and other traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forests Rights) Act
ANS (D)

Q.No: 39 The object of Kyoto Protocol is to prevent

A Air pollution
B Noise Pollution
C Deforestation
D Global warming
ANS (D)

Q.No: 40 Read the statements below and select correct answer using codes below.

1. The wild life protection Act prohibits hunting of wild animals
2. The mass hunting of 'Nilgai' was not justified under Wild life Act.

A 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect
B 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct
C 1 and 2 both are correct
D 1 and 2 both are incorrect
ANS (A)

Q.No: 41 Section 38 (J) of wild life (protection) act relates to

A Wild animals as government property
B Prohibits hunting of wild Animals
C Recognition of zoos
D Prohibition of teasing and molesting animals in zoo
ANS (D)

Q.No: 42 Who said that International Law is "Positive international morality"

A Oppenhiem
B Austin
C Holland
D Starke
ANS (B)

Q.No: 43 The famous treatise 'De jure belli ac pacis' was authored by:

A Starke
B Kelsen
C Holland
D Grotius
ANS (D)

Q.No: 45 The judges of International Court of Justice are:

A Elected by General assembly of U.N
B Elected by Security Council of U.N
C Elected by General Assembly and Security Council of U.N
D Appointed by Secretary General of U.N
ANS (C)

Q.No: 46 United Nations came into existence

A 24th October 1945
B 10th December 1948
C 1 st January 1947
D 25th June 1945
ANS (A)

Q.No: 47 Read statements below and Select correct statement using codes below.

1. Only Security Council has power of Veto
2. General Assembly can also exercise power of Veto
3. The jurisdiction of international court of justice is based on consent of states

Codes-

A 1 and 3 are correct
B 2 and 3 are correct
C 1 and 3 are not correct
D 2 and 3 are not correct
ANS (A)

Q.No: 48 Intenational trade is governed by which of the following organization

A International Trade Organization
B GATT
C WTO
D UNCTAD
ANS (C)

Q.No: 49The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 has prescribed the minimum age of marriage for bride and bridegroom. Select the correct one.

A Bride 16 years, Bridegroom
B Bride 18 years, bridegroom
C Bride 21 years, Bridegroom
D Bride 16 years, Bride groom
ANS (B)

Q.No: 50 The provision for divorce on mutual ground under Hindu Marriage Act is provided in which of the following Section

A Section 13-A
B Section 23
C Section 13-B
D Section 12
ANS (C)

Q.No: 51 In which of the judgment, Supreme court held that denial of sexual intercourse by wife for long time without sufficient reason amounts to mental cruelty

A Samar Ghosh vs. Jaya Ghosh
B Praveen Mehta vs. Inderjit Mehta
C Vidhya vishwanathan vs. Karthik Balakrishnan
D V.S.Vasantha Kumari vs. R.Sudhakar .
ANS (C)

Q.No: 52 Non complience of decree of restitution of conjugal rights by either spouse within _____ period of decree give rise to a ground for divorce.

A One year 1
B Six months 6
C Two months 2
D Eight Months 8
ANS (A)

Q.No: 53 A marriage of Muslim man with Hindu woman, according to Muslim law is

A Batil
B Fasid
C Sahih
D Mutah
ANS (B)

Q.No: 54 On attaining which of the following age the guardianship of a Muslim child stands terminated

A age of 18
B age of 21
C age of 16
D At the age of attaining puberty
ANS (D)

Q.No: 55 Read the following statements and select correct answer using codes below:

1. In shahabano's case, Supreme court laid emphasis on need for Uniform Civil Code.
2. Dispposing recent PIL field by Ashwini kumar Upadhyay, Supreme court has directed Parliament to enact uniform Civil code

Codes:

A 1 is correct but 2 is not correct
B 1 and 2 both are correct
C 1 and 2 both are not correct
D 2 is correct but 1 is incorrect
ANS (A)

Q.No: 56 In recent judgment of Hiralal P. Harsova vs. Kusum Harsova the supreme court has deleted words______ from the protection of women from Domestic Violence

A "Adult Male" in section 2(q)
B "Shelter home" in section 2(t)
C 'Domestic relationship" in section 2(f)
D "shared house hold" in Section 2(s)
ANS (A)

Q.No: 57 Which one of the following is not considered as part of International Bill of Human rights

A Universal Declaration of Human Rights
B Optional Protocol
C Convention on Rights of Child
D Convent on Social and Economic Rights
ANS (C)

Q.No: 58 Which of the following agency of United Nations was awarded Nobel Peace Prize twice.

A UNICEF UNICEF
B UNHCR UNHCR
C ILO ILO
D UNDD UNDD
ANS (B)

Q.No: 59 The Human Rights Commissions in States are established under which of the following Law.

A Constitution of India
B Protection of Human Rights Act
C State protection of Human Rights
D The United Nations (Privileges and Immunities) Act
ANS (B)

Q.No: 61 The rule of 'Absolute liability' was laid down by Supreme Court in which of the following cases

A M.C.Mehta vs. Union of India
B Vidyavathi vs. State of Rajasthan
C State Bank of India vs. Shyama Devi
D Common cause vs. Union of India
ANS (A)

Q.No: 63 Read Assertion (A) and Reason(R) and give correct answer using codes given below: Assertion(A): Master is liable for wrong committed by his servant.
Reason(R): Liability arises only during course of employment.

Codes:

A (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
B Both (A) and (R) are correct
C (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
D (A) and (R) both are incorrect
ANS (B)

Q.No: 64 Scienter rule is related to which of the following :

A Contributory negligence
B Nuisance
C Dangerous Animals
D Defamation
ANS (C)

Q.No: 66 In which of the following cases, the supreme court held that goods bought exclusively for earning livelihood by means of Self - Employment

A Department of Posts vs. Prameelamnia
B Union territory, Chandigarh vs. Amerjeet Singh
C V. Krishna kumar vs. state of Tamilnadu
D Sanjay Kumar Joshu vs. Municipal Board Laxmangarh
ANS (D)

Q.No: 67 The consumer protection (Amendment) Act, 2002, has increased the pecuniary jurisdiction limit of District Forum form:

A 2 lakhs to 5 lakhs
B 5 lakhs to 10 lakhs
C 5 lakhs to 20 lakhs
D 5 lakhs to 15 lakhs
ANS (C)

Q.No: 68 Read the below mentioned statements and select correct answer using codes given below

1. The registration of partnership firm is compulsory
2. The partners of unregistered firm cannot initiate civil suit against the firm

A 1 and 2 both are correct
B 1 and 2 both are not correct
C 1 is correct but 2 is not correct
D 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct
ANS (D)

Q.No: 69 Which of the following statement is not correct

A All essential elements of contract must be present in the partnership agreements
B Minor cannot be admitted to partnership for profit only
C Registration of partnership is optional
D Partnership is a contract of utmost good faith
ANS (B)

Q.No: 70 Read the below mentioned statements and select correct answer using code given below:

1. When foods are sold by sample as well as description the bulk of goods shall correspond both with sample and description
2. The buyer shall have and enjoy quiet possession of goods

Code:

A 1 is warranty and 2 is condition
B 1 and 2 both are conditions
C 1 and 2 both are warranties
D 1 is condition and 2 is warranty
ANS (D)

Q.No: 71 Which of the following is to covered under goods as defined in section 2(7) of the Sale of goods ACT, 1930 1930 2(7)

A Good will
B Shares
C Electricity
D Actionable claim
ANS (D)

Q.No: 72 Which of the following instrument will come under the category of 'Inchoate Instrument'

A Incomplete negotiable instrument only
B An unsigned negotiable instrument
C An in complete or blank negotiable Instrument but properly stamped and signed
D Complete negotiable instrument
ANS (C)

Q.No: 73 Bank Draft is consider in which of the following category

A Promissory Note
B Bill of Exchange
C Very much like cheque
D Not a negotiable instrument
ANS (B)

Q.No: 74 In which of the following case the supreme court has allowed filling of complaint under sections 138/142 of Negotiable Instrument Act by power of attorney of Complainant

A A.C.Narayan vs. State of Maharashtra
B Pawan kumar Patil vs. Maninder Singh
C M/S Laxmi Dye Chem vs. State of Gujarat
D Somnath Sarkar vs. Utpal Basu
ANS (A)

Q.No: 75 Section 135 of the companies Act, 2013 deal with

A Class action suits
B Corporate Social Responsibility
C National Companies Tribunal
D Independent Directors
ANS (B)

Click Here to Download FULL PAPER (PDF)